Hi Jim, On 2011-09-14 15:06 , Jim Cheetham wrote:
In 122A we find :- [....] “IPAP, [....] “(b) allocates IP addresses to its account holders; [....]"
So if my address has not been allocated to me by an IPAP, I don't have an IPAP, and I cannot be an account holder.
In the text you quote, the plural "IP addresses" is used, which it seems to me (IANAL) could quite easily be interpreted as "one or more IP addresses". If an ISP allocates a customer, eg, an (IPv4) /28, then that would surely count just as much as if they allocated them only an (IPv4) /32. A prefix is merely a shorthand convention for describing a set of "one or more IP addresses". So it seems but a tiny step, to me, to say that allocating the customer an (IPv6) /48 would also count as allocating "one or more IP addresses". That you, as a customer, are fairly likely to use most of the IP addresses in the (IPv4) /28, and fairly (very!) unlikely to use all the addresses in the (IPv6) /48 seems pretty much irrelevant -- any of them are yours to use if you wish, since they were allocated to you as a customer. (If you're pinning your hopes on the RIR/ISP jargon distinction of "assign" and "allocate", then I suspect you'll find that the legal interpretation of said law doesn't share the same fine grain approach. Like any other area with its own jargon, words don't always mean what you expect them to mean from another context.) Ewen